@mattab opened this Issue on March 8th 2012 Member

It is suggested in the forums that major internet providers own the full range of IP.

When IP has only 1 byte anonimized, could we use the assumption that they own the x.y.z.1 IP, and do the provider lookup on this IP, instead of x.y.z.0 which does not work (and is currently disabled)?

It might fail to return the proper Provider in some cases, but for most cases, it should work. Thoughts?

@mattab commented on May 31st 2012 Member

We should also consider GeoIP which has the same issue, how about replacing bytes by 0 and doing lookup in GeoIP based on that? I have the feeling I had this discussion already...

@anonymous-matomo-user commented on October 5th 2012

this issue is also important to me. Because I don't have the ability to look deep in the code I don't know why this is not possible, but for me the best solution will be

  • getting the provider
  • anonimize the ip afterwards

I saw in the forum that this is maybe due tu privacy reasons, but for me this is not the case. the ip address is not needed to be saved to any database, its just used in the code (ram) and then anonymized directly.


@diosmosis commented on October 19th 2012 Member

Anonymization works w/ GeoIP, though can become less accurate (depending on number of bytes anonymized).

This Issue was closed on October 19th 2012
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